Is that really true? My understanding for example in the USA is that if you violate the laws in another country, you automatically violate the laws in the USA (under the Foreign Corrupt Practices Act - https://www.justice.gov/criminal-fraud/foreign-corrupt-pract...) - or is that really just limited to bribery? AFAIK some other countries have similar provisions.
Yes thank you, a more detailed read of FCPA would indicate it is primarily restricted to bribery (or at least payments that could be interpreted as bribery). But could a non-EU website operator still be fined for non-compliance with GDPR if it were to collect personal data on EU citizens? Do website analytics constitute personal data?
