> The idiom is "honor amongst thieves"

This is obviously false.

But if you really need documentation, https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/44388/is-there-h... has collected quite a lot of it.

It looks like the conclusion on that page supports my claim.

> Conclusions

The notion, at least, behind the expression "there is honor among thieves" is ancient, and it is expressed (inexactly) by English writers as far back as Daniel Defoe in 1723. A pamphlet published in 1782 describes "there is honour among thieves" as an "adage," so the familiar wording must be considerably older than that date.

The counter-proverb, "there is no honour among thieves" is somewhat younger—at least in Google Books search results, with an exact occurrence in 1828 after earlier instances in which writers denied the assertion that honor did exist among thieves.

I read you as claiming that the idiom used the word "amongst". That wasn't true when the word existed and it still isn't true now.

The concept of honor among thieves has been used in many ways. Whether you emphasize that it's present in certain contexts or that it's absent in other contexts doesn't change the way you refer to it.

No honor among pedants.

Credit where it's due, but language exists to be used. I wasn't quoting their work but countless bad movies

Ah yes. I see now that your negation works out to be the same expression.

Sorry about your rug pull experience though.